When to pay mehr muwajjal.
Mu' meneen Brothers and Sisters,
As Salaam Aleikum wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh. (May Allah's Peace, Mercy and Blessings be upon all of you)
One of our brothers/sisters has asked this question:
In our society the Mehr which the bridegroom has to give to the bride is documented in the Nikkah Nama as Mehr Muajl(Meem Wau Jeem Lam), Ghaer Muajl or even Muajal (Meem Ein Jeem Lam). Please explain the meaning of these terms. As far as I understand there is also a concept prevailing in our society that the Mehr is the documented money that the husband gives to his wife if in case their relation breaks i.e. Talaq.
Please explain if one wants to pay the amount should he give the same amount of money that was documented (say) about fifteen years ago inflation has to be taken into account.
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When to pay mehr muwajjal
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Your Question: …..Please explain the meaning of these terms.
‘Muwajjal’: literally means late or something that will be given later at a specified or unspecified date.
‘Ghayr-Muwajjal’: early or immediate.
‘Muajjal’: early or immediate.
‘Ghayr-Muajjal’: late or something that will be given later at a specified or unspecified date.
Your Question: As far as I understand there is also a concept prevailing in our society that the Mehr is the documented money that the husband gives to his wife if in case their relation breaks i.e. Talaq.
Allah Says in the Holy Quran Chapter 4 Surah Nisaa verse 4:
4 And give the women (on marriage) their dower (mehr) as a free gift; but if they of their own good pleasure remit any part of it to you take it and enjoy it with right good cheer.
To determine the amount of ‘mehr’ is one of the absolutely obligatory conditions for a ‘nikaah’ to be considered valid and legal in Shariah Law, and it would obviously be best, and akin to piety and righteousness, that one fulfill the determined ‘mehr’ unto their bride at the time of ‘nikaah’ itself.
The ‘mehr’ will remain a debt unto one’s wife until it is paid; but if the wife, of her own free will and choice and without any force or coercion whatsoever, wishes to remit a part or all of it, she is well within her rights to do so.
Question: Please explain if one wants to pay the amount should he give the same
amount of money that was documented (say) about fifteen years ago inflation has
to be taken into account.
If for any reason the husband had not paid the determined amount of ‘mehr’ unto his wife at the time of the ‘nikaah’….and it has been say fifteen years since their ‘nikaah’….legally the husband is only responsible to fulfill the amount that was documented in their ‘nikaah’ contract. But if the husband, of his own free will, wishes to add and give more than the documented amount of ‘mehr’, he is well within his rights to do so.
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Your brother and well wisher in Islam,